Lucie Posted May 17, 2007 Posted May 17, 2007 i dont understand. iVe just done some staff wages for myself and two other staff. their tax codes are both BR and mine is 522L on a P11 print out that i received when i became manager it says under tax code BR W1 and 522L W1 does that mean always treat the pay as in week 1/month 1??? and if so....why??? can anyone help??? Quote
Guest Posted May 17, 2007 Posted May 17, 2007 I think the best thing to do is to contact the inland rev employers helpline you will find the number on their web site they will clarify everything and give you lessons on how to do wages and p60s and things free of charge DEb Quote
Inge Posted May 17, 2007 Posted May 17, 2007 BR = Basic rate usually is wk 1/ month 1 even if accumalitive the result is still the same... tested it out on software a while ago for a staff member. 522L is or should be accumalitive so wk 1 does not usually apply, it is the code for this tax year for basic rate tax and it is a code for the year not just a week 1 / month1 As manager do you do the wages for all staff from details supplied by employers...if so I would ask them what they mean by it....other option is to telephone the tax office for advice on thier helpline....always find them very helpful and willing to advise. Could just be someone not knowing how the tax codes work BR is usually an emergency tax code or for those without P45 in which case a code will eventually be supplied or I have had to use it for those with a second job where the basic tax code is applied to the other job.... Do you use the CD rom for this supplied by IRS it has help on there too on tax codes may be worth a look Personally I would apply wk 1 only to BR codes ...and not 522L codes I cannot remember and on wrong Pc to try it but I think the Cd only allows week 1/ month 1 in Br codes Inge Quote
Lucie Posted May 17, 2007 Author Posted May 17, 2007 Thanks inge, i feel its a bit late today to ring the tax office tonight. The cd will let me turn wk1 on for 522l but it doesnt make a difference bc tax is still 0 as im still on the free part of the pay. Both other employees have a second job so i know that BR is correct. But, i do get a different tax amount when w1 is applied?! but only within a pound. I applied W1 today bc i had to give wage slips to the treasurer (and thort i would continue with what had been happening b4. But if what uve said is right (im sure it is) then ive done it right. Yes the wages have previously been done by the manager before me,so it might be that she has just applied it wrong in my case? thankyou. Quote
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